Is this a valid argument? If not, what is the fallacy?

[raddem-bicol]

Ah, Weberian states again.

"[S]omething is “a ‘state’ if and insofar as its administrative staff successfully upholds a claim on the monopoly of the legitimate use of violence (German: das Monopol legitimen physischen Zwanges) in the enforcement of its order.”

(Source: Wikipedia)