[i][i]Using the term “free will”, whether by its advocates or its opponents, denotes the concept of “unfree will” in contrast.
If, by any chance, there is no unfree will, and what all the "will"s in the world can be, is free, then there is no need to argue whether there is “free will” or not. In that case, what may be in question is if there is a will or not, since a “will” is inherently taken to be free.
On the other hand, if there are such distinctive concepts as “free will” and “unfree will”, however, they should naturally have distinctive properties, too, differentiating them from one another.
Suppose you decide to cross the street; who is going to tell if that is an example of a free will or an unfree one, and by what criteria?
One thing worth mentioning here, is that if someone forces you into doing that, at gun point, it cannot be considered an example of an unfree will, unless you call all “will"s unfree, since it is a normal cause and effect process which is not essentially any different from other cause and effect processes that take place in decision making, but might not look as evident.
If you decide to cross the street at gun point, 1. you know why you have made such a decision; and 2. you most probably are not very interested to do so.
On the other hand, if you decide to cross the street where there’re no guns, 1. you may not be quite sure what your ultimate cause would be, and 2. most of the time, you might not feel much dislike to do so. These differences are not enough to make for such dramatic distinction.
If you can never tell the true difference, however, why should you be so happy about having a philosophically free will (in contrast to a common"free will”, meaning “you are free to do whatever you like to, or you deem necessary”.)
It is ok, if you say you stick to any idea, whether right or wrong, as long as it gives you comfort, but what if the sum of the consequences of having such notion proves the contrary?
Still, my main questions are:
- Is it possible to practically make a distinction between a free will and an “unfree will”(if it exists)?
- On the assumption that there are no "unfree will"s, why should one use the term “free will”? [/i][/i]