The absolute Impossibility of Nothingness - ever
May 23, 2015
Okay, now given that you have 10 cups with the random possibility of each cup having as many as 10 coins in it, what is the possibility that you have the same number of coins in all 10 cups?
Mathematically that would be $$(1/10)^{10}\quad or\quad 0.0000000001$$
The state of nothingness and the state of absolute homogeneity are actually the same thing. If there is no distinction in affect at all in every point in space, there is no universe. Thus for a universe to exist, there must be distinction or variation in affect between the points in space. What is the possibility that every point in space is of the exact same value of PtA (potential-to-affect)?
Well, let’s define the term as the specific infinite series,
$$infA ≡ [1+1+1+…]$$
Just a single infinite line would give us infA² points on that line if you want to include all infinitesimal lengths, all “real numbers”. And assuming nothing is forcing any particular PtA value, each point on the line might have a value anywhere from infinitesimal to infinite, the range of that same infA² but for PtA value.
So the possibility for every point on the line to have the same PtA value (given steps of 1 infinitesimal) would be;
$$Possibility :of :homogeneous :line = (1/infA)^{(infA)^2}$$
That is 1 infinitesimal reduced by itself infinitely an infinite number of times. And right there is the issue. Also in 3D space, you actually have the infinite real-number cube (to simplify from spherical) of;
$$Possibility :of :homogeneous :space = (1/infA)^{infA^6}$$
Normally in mathematics if your number has reached 1 infinitesimal, it is accepted as zero and is certainly close enough to zero for all practical purposes but we are literally infinitely less than infinitely less than 1 infinitesimal. For 3D space, we are looking at 1 infinitesimal times itself infinitely and an infinite number of times, infinitely times an infinity of more times, and infinitely times an infinite number more times.
Given an infinity of time (an infinite timeline, another infA² of points in time) and with or without causality, the possibility of running across homogeneity of space is;
$$Possibility :of :homogeneity :through :all :space = (1/infA)^{infA^6} $$
$$Possibility :of :homogeneity :through :all :space :and :all :time = (1/infA)^{infA^{12}}$$
With a possibility being that degree of infinitely small, not only can it never randomly end up homogeneous even through an infinity of trials (an infinite time line, never getting up to even 1 infinitesimal possibility), but it can’t even be forced to be homogeneous. A force is an affect. If all affects are identical, the total affect is zero. What would be left in existence to force all points to be infinitely identical?
But if that isn’t good enough for you, realize that those calculations are based on stepped values of merely 1 infinitesimal using a standard of infA. In reality, each step would be as close to absolute zero as possible without actually being absolute zero. Using a standard of as close to absolute infinity as possible,
$$AbsInf ≡ highest :possible :number :toward :absolute :infinity.$$
And then of course,
$$1/AbsInf = would :be :the :lowest :possible :number :or :value.$$
Thus we have,
$$Possibility :of :homogeneity :through :all :time = (1/AbsInf)^{Absinf^{12}}$$
Now we have truly absolute zero possibility because if we are already as close to absolute zero as possible with “1/AbsInf”, as soon as we multiply that by any fraction, we have breached absolute zero, impossibly small. And we have breached absolute zero by a factor of AbsInf¹² … well, well beyond absolute zero possibility of homogeneity.
Thus Absolute Homogeneity, “Nothingness”, is absolutely impossible.