Agreed. If all matter and energy in the universe ceased to be, and there was merely a single meteor hanging in the empty space (ok, so there’s space and a meteor, so sue me) the meteor would be equal to itself, for all of eternity (so long as its atoms don’t break down, which we know is posssible, but we’ll set that aside for sake of argument).
So yes, for so long as A then A=A.
Ok, thank you. So, thus we’re basically in agreement here? I’m garnering more and more respect for the Buddha.
Should I take this as a compliment, or just a statement of fact? I’ll take it as both, since my ego doesn’t receive much of a boost on most occasions.
I don’t think I’ve encountered the “proof of Anselm.”
But when A becomes B, then B=B, and when it becomes C, then C=C. So the formula is never false, only the object changes, but any said object always shall follow Object=Object.
Question in regards to:
Ok, I’m entirely unfamiliar with Meinong, so take this for what it’s worth.
So what you’re basically saying is that, if I say, “The rock is hard.” The rock itself is not the property “hard” but is in and of itself simply rock, and hard is a property of the rock, but the rock is not itself “hardness.”
Does that work as an adequate example of your statement?
However, it doesn’t follow that if the rock were the only thing in existence, that it would cease being hard. What would happen, is that the rock would still be the rock, with all characteristics that it holds, but we would not be aware of its hardness.
For instance:
If A then B, and if B then C, they all must follow together, though A doesn’t = B and B doesn’t = C.
I think this is basically what you’re saying. Though I’m not sure it entirely applies to the cogito ergo sum case.
That is, we can’t readily define properties of thought. It does follow that thought = thought. But we can’t define that thought has the property of wetness, or hardness, or any such thing. So it’s more or less irrelevant what properties are associated with thought. Since we don’t understand the nature of thought (I’m assuming) nothing can follow.
I still think A=A works for this instance. And so the first part of your statement (the Buddhist postulate) seems to function. Whereas, we lack any relevant data to determine if the other statement can be useful in any sense.
Your statement could actually be used to prove my statement. That is, if Thought = Thought that’s fine. But, if we’re saying if Thought then Thinker, it doesn’t seem to follow, since Thinker cannot be stated to be relient upon, or a property of thought, from anything empirical.
Does that make sense?