One is said to have compatibilist free will if and only if their choices are determined by their beliefs. That’s the definition of the term “compatibilist free will”.
Since you claim that human choices are determined by beliefs, it follows that you believe that compatibilist free will exists.
That’s really all there is to it.
We’ve been over this in the past.
Your decisions are not necessarily determined by your beliefs. For example, they can be determined by a chip implanted inside your head. That’s an extreme case. An ordinary case would be something like getting drunk. When you get drunk, you become unable to reason properly. You become unable to take your existing beliefs and correctly deduce from them what you should do.
Note that the above phenomenon is perfectly compatible with determinism.
They call it “compatibilism”. What you call “the ability to choose, of our own accord” is what compatibilists call “free will”.
We’ve been over this too. I remember asking you to explain what the above statement means and you failing to provide a satisfying answer.
I wouldn’t be surprised if you don’t really understand what a definition is. Most people don’t. And I am talking about people who post on philosophy forums ( not average folks. )
A definition is merely a proposition of the form “Concept C is attached to term T by person P”. “Compatibilist free will” is a name given to the concept of free will that compatibilists attach to the term “free will”. A definition of that term is merely a description of the concept they are attaching to the term “free will”. Its truth value is fully determined by whether or not it’s an accurate description of the concept compatibilists are attaching to the term “free will”. Nothing else. But I know this is all too technical ( it’s sad that I have to say this on a philosophy forum but that’s how it is ), so I don’t expect anyone to get what I’m saying. But just in case someone does, there it is.
“The past does not exist” is a very strange claim. Since the word “past” means “Everything that existed prior to the present moment”, what you’re saying is “Everything that existed prior to the present moment does not exist”. Doesn’t that strike you as a rather strange and grammatically incorrect sentence? I’m merely trying to say that, because it’s strange, most people won’t understand it without proper explanation. But perhaps we can safely ignore that statement and focus on other things you’re saying.
Initially, I thought that you’re a determinist. When I say “determinist” I mean determinist in the standard sense of that term. A determinist in the standard sense is someone who believes that the past fully causes / determines the future ( which means that there is no randomness / chaos involved. ) If you don’t believe that to be the case, you are not a determinist; you are an indeterminist. Sure, you might be a determinist in a different, and an usual, sense of the word, but you’re not a determinist in the standard sense.
When you say that you’re a determinist, all you seem to be saying is that our choices are determined by our beliefs; and even then, you’re saying that our choice at point in time t is caused by our beliefs at the same point in time t ( rather than what we believed at a prior in time. ) You really only seem to accept instantaneous causation / determination. This position is actually quite similar to that of metaphysical libertarianism. The only difference is that libertarians claim that choices are uncaused whereas in this case it is what causes our choices that is uncaused ( presumably our beliefs. ) In essence, not much of a difference.
There is, however, a small problem with this type of indeterminism. If the past does not determine the future, then your present choices cannot determine anything about your future. They can, at best, determine the present moment. This is problematic because many of our real life actions take time. Take motion as an example. In order to move from point A to point B, a certain amount of time must pass. Instantaneous motion isn’t possible because that would mean that you’re at two different positions at the same time ( something that is logically impossible. ) If you’re currently at point A, you can only be at point B at some future point in time e.g. at the next point in time. So if you decide, in the present moment, to move to B, that decision cannot cause you to move to B, because by causing you to move to B, the present moment would be causing / determining a future moment, which violates your “The past does not cause / determine the future”.
You might object with “It is not the past causing the future but the present”. But the present moment becomes the past the very next moment.
But what determines those memories? You can’t say they are determined by the past because you’re denying that the past can determine the future. Thus, they are either determined by something in the present or they are, like libertarian choices, undetermined / uncaused.
Compatibilists actually agree with you when you say that 1) libertarian free will ( what you call “free will” ) is incompatible with determinism, and 2) libertarian free will does not exist.
As I said earlier, they are NOT trying to reconcile the two concepts. They are NOT attempting to show that libertarian free will and determinism can co-exist. They are merely saying that 1) the relevant of concept of free will is not the one employed by libertarians, and 2) the relevant concept of free will is compatible with determinism.
It’s a mess created by poorly defined terms. Ant it’s probably libertarians ( and those who are working with the libertarian concept ) who are guilty of it.
Note that if all he’s saying is that if we shape the environment such that 1) every person chooses what they do freely of their own will ( no psychological games, no chips inside people’s minds, no excessive stress, etc ), and 2) the best choice for every single person at every point in time is the one that does not cause harm to anyone, that there would be no reason to punish people, he’s not saying anything new or groundbreaking.