is the concept of equal individual rights fundamentally communistic and at odds with an individualist perspective?
the origins of equal rights in America was from the founders belief that “all men are CREATED equal”; religion was a personal motivation for seemingly much of the early writings and ideas that led to the Constitution. Locke and Franklin wrote about God-given rights, as did others, and that because all people are equal in God’s eyes (or Nature’s eyes if you want to substitute a term), all people should have equal political rights as well.
despite that the founders did not intend to enforce or legislate equality ITSELF and only sought to establish equal OPPORTUNITY or RIGHTS, it still seems that the doctrine of ‘equality for all’ is fundamentally communistic or collectivist in nature. “everyone is equal to everyone else”, how can this statement, in any sense of meaning, be equated with a system of governance that attempts to establish and maintain differences in material, power and other statures between people, even assuming these differences came about in agreement with a fundamental equality of rights or “opportunity”?
the traditional American argument goes thus: “all people are equal in political rights, and all people can act and do as they please as long as they do not harm others and respect others rights. this will mean that some people are more successful than others, but this is ok. people have the right to their property that they earn or create, and if some people are rich and others are less rich or even poor this is allowed and even desirable, because it follows from the free system of equality of opportunity and political rights that frees inner natures and instincts and abilities of all people, which will always be unique and different from each other.” the difference in actual results (materialistically speaking) was seen as a sign that the American experiment in freedom and equal rights was healthy and working.
but can a system that fundamentally assumes that all people are EQUAL in some basic way truly sustain such instabilities or inequalities BETWEEN people, even ones that (seem) naturally generated from the “normal” and desirable operations of the free/equal system itself? how can a system that views all people as “the same” tolerate some rich and some poor?
is there a fundamentally basic communism or collectivism hidden underneath the American traditional claims to upholding individualism and individual rights?
is the distinction between the intrinsic immaterial “right to life” and “God-given rights”-type equality and the INequality that is materialistically generated from such a system contradictory? or is it just the case that ‘equality’ applies differently depending on the scope in question?
or rather, is it truly tolerable or desirable that people will end up unequal in every possible “real” (materialistic/power/influence/ability/etc) way within a system that claims that “all people are equal and the same” with regard to their political and “God-given” RIGHTS to life, liberty, pursuit of happiness and property?
because it seems, at least on the surface, that a creed such as “everyone is equal”, in any form whatsoever, is fundamentally and completely at odds and contradictory to any affirmation of difference between people in actual reality. that is, affirming that there will be differences between people in every conceivable real (material/etc) way, and that this is desirable (or at least not undesirable) seems to imply a state of affairs or underlying logic such that “everyone is equal and the same”, in any sense of meaning at all, must necessarily be invalidated.
an affirmation of a fundamental difference and uniqueness among all people in all conceivable ways/measures seems totally irreconcilable with the statement “all men are created equal”… or is that wrong? if so, how?