Falsity in Misogyny and Control Structures

In the past it perhaps became evident or otherwise society evolved such as to not allow women to work(vocationally) physically during particular stages of birthing, primitively (most likely) simply when pregnancy became evident as there was less evidence to suggest capacity to continue physical labor while pregnant…even still thought it would seem reasonable to avoid physical labor(vocational-not-inclusive of birthing itself obviously) for sureness. This alone interestingly could have lead to a reduction in relative muscular strength, specifically in those aspects in relation to typical physical labor such as plowing the field (arms legs, chest area etc…) (Whereas it may have lent to physical strength with regards to birthing)… As a result the maximum amount of time capable for a man to do physical work in a life time would have been on average higher than the maximum incurred in a woman’s life (considering that pregnancy was typical, and only those who did get pregnant would pass on the genetics of being such). As such we have that over time there would have been a reduction in musculature, assuming there was at some point more of a similarity of muscularity between the two, as is in apes… Consider it as a growing sum for the evolution of each beings strength, over generations there would have been less time spent by women doing physical labor and thus less increase in such as to then result in a higher relative physical (arm-leg specifically) strength of men over women. Over time it is ‘reasonable’ that fallacious logic would have lead to such thoughts as that because women shouldn’t work(physically) when pregnant and thus the false deduction that they shouldn’t work physically at all… which then allowed for atrophy to a degree that reduced relative strength even more perhaps to a degree less than what was of our original primordial-human state. As such the same reduction may have happened and seems to be happening in men as a result of increase in technology for which there is less need for physical labor to the degree of the past. The next unfortunate logically fallacious evolution of thought that occurred, probably after that of thinking a woman should not physically work at all, was that because women don’t physically work at all (when mental work became more prevalent) there was continuance of the behavior to think woman couldn’t work by similar association to the idea of work of the mental nature. In other words men (and possibly even to some degree women) thought that because woman haven’t then worked physically they should likewise not then be ones to work at all mentally as well. All this resolves that such logically fallacious thoughts should be dissolved and corrected to then be it understood that woman have the capacity to perform physical vocational-efforts (as I have been referring to by the word ‘work’) in so far as it is not harmful to the yet birthed child, should they take part in such as pregnancy. And then because it is simply, if not morally logical logical, then logical by evidence of efficiency. Further we then have that it is then definitely not reasonable to prohibit women from vocation or any form of study regarding metal efforts as this is also not conducive to efficiency, and typically has no bearing on pregnancy, in so far as we know. But most remarkably ignorant would be such a thought as to over look that it would definitively be best for children to be associated deeply with more intelligent bodies. In the past under the similarly fallacious logic that women should be the ones alone to grow the children in the youth, it would have even under that false assumption been logical to allow women the capacity to be intellectual as it would lend to the intellectual growth of children. But regardless now it is clearly more effective that both parents, for which there is put equal effort into upbringing, should both have the highest degree of intellectualism possible so as to contribute to the growth of the mind as well as all efforts of efficiency regarding the child. As such then leads to an overall increase in the capacity for the survival and likewise included happiness of humanity (happiness being an aspect of mood typically necessary to functional survival efforts.)

As an aside this brings to mind the idea of some that education should be for the wealthy or the upper class, or the control class; when rather it is actually evident that the higher the intelligence of the populace the better shall be the overall functioning. To allow otherwise that the majority or any for that matter are prohibited from education is to force a regression such that will lead into a state of logic (or state of illogic) wherein it is likely that rebellion will occur regardless of reason. As such reduction in reasonable education serves to increase exponentially the likely hood of incapacity of control with regards to means of reason. Where in there then leads to a necessity of increase in control by force, wherein there is an increase in necessity in effort of the higher/control class, wherein there comes to a limit wherein the capacity to support the control structure caps beyond the necessity for the growth of the control structure such as then to lead to failure which would definitively lead to catastrophe. As such it is evident that reasonable education and thus teaching of use of logic is crucial to spread efficiently and equally as such is possible among all distinctions of class, regardless of whether such distinction exists. There is of course the fallacious notice that education system might not be working and then that as a result it is evident that education is not functional or that the ‘lower class’ is not capable of such when in reality education itself is what leads to the evolution of the capacity to increase intelligence throughout generations. Education can of course be misunderstood and then attempted such as to control the particularity of the mind when rather it is necessary that freedom of thought is prevalent in so far as continued control over the populace is not possible without eventually leading to a reliance on that control that then necessitates further need such as to lead to another exponential growth that then leads to a limit wherein capacity to continue evolution of control is unlikely to continue to be capable of sustaining control, as such to lead to another catastrophe.

What are we saying here? Misogyny is “bad” and misandry is “good”? Patriarchy is “bad” and matriarchy is “good”?

You and your subjective evaluations pretending to be a objectivism.

You have no idea how existence operates hiding behind your fictional scripted moral valuations and metanarratives.

You live in a perpetual fantasy.

I didn’t claim it wasn’t fantasy or otherwise, what fantasy lead you to that assumption?
What might be reality?
It was a proposition, a theory, not an absolutismic proclomation…
Neither did I propose matriarchy…I imagine if such was evident it would have come such as from a misunderstanding…what might it have been specifically to lead you to think such?

I was suggesting a plausible environmental result both social and physical in part that lead to mysogyny such as to reveal the fallicousnous of Mysogyny so as to amplify equality not Misandry.

What is equality? Is equality attainable?

Equality is the idea that there can be similarity of significantly similar amounts regarding some aspect within a number of entities.
I would think equality is at least attainable between certain things regarding particular aspects, at least in so far as to the degree wherein there might be an absence of significance that may be easily relateable to disharmony. Thus it would seem there is a state wherein entities can be functionally and mutually beneficially similar to the highest degree or to a degree which is directed towards heightening of such, though to be clear;to know that state such as to be objective would seem unknowable, where as nonetheless one can achieve such to a degree most possible…wherein that is what I would mean by Equality…That is to say one can arrive at subjective consensus…

If all entities are different exclusively in pursuit of their own self interests what possible noteworthy similarity can there be in unison?

Such as?

Oh, really now? How?

If it is unknowable this would exclude possibility.

I don’t understand a word your saying. Are you so sure?

Also: There is proof that with modern feminism there is a disproportionate number of men being squeezed out of education and the workforce.

Then of course there is that whole report that women are now the most unhappiest than they ever have been with also the destruction of the traditional family household simultaneously occuring in large statistics.

But, what do I know? :sunglasses:

One can’t also forget that whopping 65% divorce rate of the United States either including other modern industrial nations. The battle of the sexes.
Got to like it and just eat it up. Primary reason of divorce statistically? Fighting over household financial expenses.

If they are all different there is definitely that similarity of being different.
What if the function of the self relies on the function of others? (can’t breath without plants…can’t eat without food from farms from labors from people…lest you want to crap everything and become completely self sufficient, which wouldn’t be horrible i guess if you didn’t like socializing and giving up a bunch of other things…even then it would be hypocritical if you had a pet…wouldn’t it get boreing…without even reading of others work…)

Again they can be both different…As such similarity to some degree would seem to be always evident.
Likewise it would seem there is some amount of difference always unless it is the same thing in the same time.
As such it would then seem to be evident that there is clearly some form of similarity between what you were when you began discussing this and what you are now, and hence some degree of equality.
So then between the subjective entity itself in so far as it is separated throughout time there is a formal degree of harmony, of equality.

Are you better now or worse now then what you were just then, if you are the same then certainly there is equity through the passage of the temporal selves? If you are better there is growth in harmony and equity, If you are worse then can you not revert to the past self? Why would there be only one of any of these capacities?

by unknowable I would think to mean the incapacity to recognize a thing as being 100% probable…forgive my inaccurate linguistics…

Is the failing to understand always the failing of the other to express? ( a thought not an implication of you)
I am not perfectly certain of anything, but I do hold that these things do seem likely lest perhaps you might indicate otherwise, in which case I will grasp to what seems more evident.

I do have a tendency to use run-on sentences though…
Let me attempt a reiteration of this part (or more if you so wish):

“Thus it would seem there is a state wherein entities can be functionally and mutually beneficially similar to the highest degree or to a degree which is directed towards heightening of such, though to be clear;to know that state such as to be objective would seem unknowable, where as nonetheless one can achieve such to a degree most possible…wherein that is what I would mean by Equality”

It would seem to be possible that any set of entities can arrive at a state of mutual benefit.
The degree of mutualism as well as benefit, and thus both, can vary.
In that it can very it would seem evident there is some means of increasing this mutualism in a manner mutually consented as best.
Thus I would call the heightening, or a state of higher-than-previous, beneficial mutalism…as equality.

Proof? What qualifies proof? but indeed it would seem that (without the negatively connotative words “squeezed”) men are having a reduction in Job space, and perhaps to a degree education in so far perhaps as more teachers are female as such to lend more to the dealings with females…as well as other factors…
Ultimately you are right to think there is the possibility for the arise of a degree of female control/power such as to be equatable to misandry…therein both must be considered; rather than allowance for such as a word for “feminism” where in there is no word for “maninism” that would not be met with oppressive attitudes suggestive of such as being an attempt of misogyny. Indeed often one extreme is traded for another…though i have reason to believe such may not happen of course those reasons might be presumed to be misogynistic… I would think though an extreme as to the same degree as previous misogyny would not be likely to occur if misandry was to arise to a more significant degree…

In America at least:
From what I looked into:
The primary cause is said to be financial issues.
the second leading cause and that which occurs more often after 10 years of marriage is loss of “intimacy”.

IMO:
Financial because people expect more luxury beyond what is really needed probably in large part due to various marketing techniques. In other words people are probably spoiled.
Loss of intimacy is pretty much due to getting used to the sex. This is largely due to both males and females focusing on sexism…do we not hear “you are not a man till you have had sex”
But then it is not merely the mans fault…it is unfortunately an aspect of men to be horny it would seem…Therin this would seem to be exacerbated by severe (expendature=waste) of women working so hard to make them selves appear what is ironically called “sexy”… as well though as men succumbing to such sexism though…both i imagine should be considered and worked on in so far as is possible…