Is the inability to (fill in the blank) the same as the fear of this inability?
I see the latter as depending (of course) on the existence of the inability to (fill in the blank). However, I do not see the inability to (fill in the blank) as requiring the fear of it to exist.
What do you think?
( I didn’t know where to place this post so feel free to move it to its apppropriate location…perhaps we should have a semiotics forum?)
I’ve no idea what you’re talking about. Well, I do, but I’m refusing to answer because of the way you phrased the question.
I’ve thought about a semiotics forum - I don’t think that there’s enough people interested in semiotics here to justify a whole forum devoted to it. In fact, there aren’t enough people on the internet as a whole who are interested in semiotics to warrant a whole forum devoted to it. I’ve looked and struggled to find anything except a few short-run messageboards (including my own, which basically consisted of a blog on poststructuralism).