Possible?
- Yes
- No
Hey guys, I came up with this and I drew it really quickly on paint so it looks bad but you can get the basic idea…
What do you think?
Possible?
Hey guys, I came up with this and I drew it really quickly on paint so it looks bad but you can get the basic idea…
What do you think?
No sorry, it won’t work. The reason is simply because of conservation of energy.
Let’s say the large windmill uses a certain amount of electrical energy X. This electrical energy will be converted into the kinetic energy of the blades which will displace air with a certain energy. Lets say the resultant displaced air energy is Y. Because there will be energy lost in this process, due to friction, electrical leakage in the windmill motor etc. X > Y.
The other smaller windmills have this energy Y split between all of them to turn their blades, which we already know is less than X. Even if we take friction and losses out of the equation, Y will only be equal to X, not greater than it. So you see, if all these windmills convert this Y into electrical energy, it will still be either less than (if we take into account losses) or equal to X (if we ignore losses).