My apologies that I’ve not addressed this when apparently you wanted me to.
So your point is that for all the finite fractions of the form (n\times\frac1{n}) equalling (1) without exception as (n) tends towards infinity, somehow “at infinity” it’s (0) because (\frac1\infty) disappears?
The conclusion you should be making, mathematically, is that (\frac1\infty) is undefined, not that it definitively equals (0) even when multiplied by its reciprocal.
Limits are the only thing we can be definitively talking about here, as I covered in my last post.
I don’t laugh at mathematical incompetence relative to me - this isn’t about me, and I’m only laughing at all the mathematical posturing going on from self-confessed non-mathematicians unsurprisingly falling so short.
I’m just another mathematician, and we all understand why (1=0.\dot9)
I’m just trying to let you guys in on why the correct answer is correct. I can’t make you understand, nor would it venerate me in any way if I did. I’m just a messenger. This is all for your respective benefits, not for mine in any way. I’m no god or anything, I’m more like a janitor cleaning up incorrectness merely for aesthetic purposes.