Anything can be declared as a dimension. A dimension merely means that something is going to be measured on a linear scale. Time is the measure of relative change. One can (and should) choose to measure change on a linear scale. But don’t confuse the measure of change with the existence of a prior or future state. The word “time” has multiple meanings in English; “time of day”, “measurement of change”, “era in history”, “appropriate situation”. One must be careful when speaking of truth in English.
I don’t think that it does mean that. You are conflating the existence of multiple states of the universe coexisting with a measure of the changing of the state. Those are two very different things. Time brings about the change in state. The changed state is the present. The next change in state is the future. Time is merely "how much changing is going on relative to a reference standard, ie “per second”. The degree of changing is a dimension called “time”. The changes that come about are not the “time” but rather the “era”. Only one era can be having affect and thus exist. All other eras are either past or future (or fantasy) and thus not having affect (not changing) and thus not existing (certainly not in the present).
Then You must define what You mean when you say “it exists”, because you have included, for example, a past that currently has no affect at all upon present existence (realize that thoughts of the past have present affect, but not the past itself).
Not if you have understood what I have said. ![]()
If we define existence as that which encompasses all possible worlds or that which encompasses all things, then we have no paradox in definition, right? What other definition is possible?
That somewhat depends on what you mean by “possible”; “logically possible”, “hopefully possible”, “statistically possible”, “legally possible”. But more importantly, what rationale is there in choosing such a definition? What decisions would be changed by the ontological definition that the future already exists? What does it help to know that? What purpose does such a definition serve?
One could declare that “existence” is whatever he imagines. Okay, that is a free choice. But what does it serve to say that? How is the “real” being distinguished from the “imagined” if both reference the truly existent?
Declared definitions should serve a coherent purpose, have a reason for the choice of one definition over another. And realize that it is merely a concept being chosen, not a reality being discovered. Truth is a chosen construct (organization of forms and relations) that reflects experience for the purpose of using the construct for decision making.
Anything other than this, appears to lead to a load of paradoxes that lead the likes of Kant and Hume to reject the absoluteness of reason.
I’ll take that challenge. To me, Hume and Kant were, emm… “small minded”, but very few of that era were not.
I am a “rational ontologist”, one who forms truths into a coherent and useful understanding of the universe/reality. Using my “RM: Affectance Ontology”, I have explained why every law of physics is what it is (the reasoning behind the reality, the “metaphysics”) and even discovered new things and flaws in current physics (apparently due to their errors in constructing their ontology. Scientists make poor ontologists/metaphysicists).
Ref; Particles