This is the philosophical sketch by Kant that incited me to think about this topic and make this thread:
mtholyoke.edu/acad/intrel/kant/kant1.htm#fn1
Kant lays down several preliminary articles which are the necessary conditions for achieving perpetual peace (according to Kant) and after that the definitive articles. Most of them I find quite reasonable if perpetual peace is put forward as a goal and I won’t add much commentary on his in my OP because his text is perfectly comprehensible and I don’t think I can elaborate on Kant’s points better than Kant himself did so I’d just be regurgitating what Kant already said more eloquently.
My main issue is that most of the articles are somewhat unrealistic and dated. In an ideal world, where everybody would abide by Kant’s rules, I think Perpetual Peace would be possible. Perhaps in some distant future of our world too. But it appears that humans now are so hellbent on war and destruction that the situation for now is beyond salvation.
Some of Kant’s points I would like to point out and/or rephrase:
- Gradual abolishing of military.
A form of minor local defense for enforcing the law is acceptable, but the large and heavily armed military should be gradually abolished for the reasons stated by Kant in the 3rd preliminary article. Important thing to point out is the word “Gradual”, which means over time, and not sudden, which would leave the country open to attack. The obvious issue is convincing certain belligerent countries to participate in disarming and abolishing the military which could prove impossible.
A reasonable request. If every treaty of peace was made in such a way and respected the wars in the future would be prevented.
So basically, a state that has fallen into a state of anarchy is no longer a state so interfering is permitted. Fair enough, but what criteria does one use to determine when the state (country) has fallen into a state of anarchy so that interfering is justified? Doesn’t this give room for another state to interfere and support 1 of the 2 factions by claiming the country has fallen into a state of anarchy?
Isn’t war itself such an act of hostility which makes mutual confidence and subsequent peace impossible? This rule seems to favor the state with more raw military force and therefore less likely to lose due to a direct conflict and more likely to lose due to underhanded tactics. I think attacking somebody’s country isn’t any worse than employing an assassin or a poisoner to kill a relevant person. Both are despicable.
This sentence by Kant himself doesn’t exactly speak in favor of Perpetual Peace being possible either:
Let’s say that Perpetual Peace is possible and established in the world and there are no more wars between states. What about any other minor conflicts then, such as hundreds of soccer fans beating on each other? Can we truly say we established perpetual peace when there is still violence and conflict? If so, at which point can we say that the number of people in a conflict is large enough to constitute a war and put an end to peace? Isn’t any number we put forward arbitrary? Wouldn’t perpetual peace then necessarily entail the cessation of any and all physical conflicts between people? Can humans overcome their nature through obedience towards laws or some other means?