Is the axiom of reducibility invalid

Is the axiom of reducibility invalid

Russell Ramsey and Wittgenstein regarded it as illegitimate Russell abandoned this axiom and many believe it is illegitimate and must be not used in mathematics

Ramsey says

Such an axiom has no place in mathematics, and anything which cannot be
proved without using it cannot be regarded as proved at all.

This axiom there is no reason to suppose true; and if it were true, this
would be a happy accident and not a logical necessity, for it is not a
tautology. (THE FOUNDATIONS OF MATHEMATICS* (1925) by F. P. RAMSEY

yet godel uses it in his incompleteness theorem

Godel uses the axiom of reducibility axiom 1V of his system is the axiom of reducibility “As Godel says “this axiom represents the axiom of reducibility (comprehension axiom of set theory)” (K Godel , On formally undecidable propositions of principia mathematica and related systems in The undecidable , M, Davis, Raven Press, 1965,p.12-13)
. Godel uses axiom 1V the axiom of reducibility in his formula 40 where he states “x is a formula arising from the axiom schema 1V.1 ((K Godel , On formally undecidable propositions of principia mathematica and related systems in The undecidable , M, Davis, Raven Press, 1965,p.21

“ [40. R-Ax(x) ≡ (∃u,v,y,n)[u, v, y, n <= x & n Var v & (n+1) Var u & u Fr y & Form(y) & x = u ∃x {v Gen [[R(u)*E(R(v))] Aeq y]}]

x is a formula derived from the axiom-schema IV, 1 by substitution “

following ramsey russell and wittgenstien the Australian philosopher colin leslie dean claims because the axiom of reducibility is invalid then godels incompleteness theorem is invalid as he uses AR

so is the axiom of reducibility invalid

well anthem says the axiom is invalid

From what little I know about it, yes, it’s invalid.

A bigger question is ‘so what?’

as godels uses it to prove his theorem
his theorem must be invalid as his proof is invalid

And what about that?

go read
deans theorem

What does it matter that Goedel might be incorrect? So what? Biggest math fraud in history? I know a good deal of math and I’ve never learned anything explicitly attributed to him. All I knew of him was he was one of Einstein’s friends in IQ, and apparently also in real life.

dean uses godel as an example to show his point that all products of human thinking end in meaninglessness
he has proved this for mathematics and science as well- your maths is meaninglessness rubbish
go read his book

http://gamahucherpress.yellowgum.com/books/philosophy/Absurd_math_science4.pdf

The absurdities or meaninglessness of mathematics and science: paradoxes and contradiction in mathematics and science which makes them meaningless, mathematics and science are examples of mythical thought, case study of the meaninglessness of all views

The absurdities or meaninglessness of mathematics and science: paradoxes and contradiction in mathematics and science which makes them meaningless, mathematics and science are examples of mythical thought, case study of the meaninglessness of all views
The absurdities or meaninglessness of mathematics and science: paradoxes and contradiction in mathematics and science which makes them meaningless, mathematics and science are examples of mythical thought, case study of the meaninglessness of all views

Then why are you here?

If all human thought is meaningless, please, spare us more of yours.

Anyway, what a funny conundrum Mr. Dean gets himself into…

All human thought is meaningless. My paper is a product of human thought. Therefore, my paper is meaningless. But, if my paper is meaningless, then that means its conclusions are too. Therefore, I can say nothing about anything. The end.

yes dean admitts he ends in meaninglessness
but so does every one else
and he has shown your maths ends in meaninglessness to
thesis and its antithesis
nihilism and its opposite
skepticiam and its oppoiste
all end in meaninglessness
and godel was a fine example to give of the point

yes you are corrects
thend
then end of human arrogance
and all philosophy
and all human babbling

You miss the point. But anyway, are you trying to bring down all of philosophy and science? You need good grammar to do that, dearie.

By the way, I was looking through old posts you’ve made at other philosophy forums…do you have a life? Seriously you need to get laid. Anyway, other people seem to think the axiom of reducibility is valid as long as it doesn’t create a contradiction. In certain systems maybe it doesn’t create any contradictions. I have no idea, this is not my area of expertise, and obviously it’s not yours either.

russell wittgenstien and ramsey said it is invalid and not because it creates a contradiction
Euclid’s fifth postulate ie the axiom of parallel lines is invalid in non-euclidian geometry
ie it is invalid not because it creates contradiction but because it is just invalid

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parallel_postulate