Kant vs Nietzsche

Are you saying that Nietzsche was not even a little bit a philosopher?

Fact is that most ILP members are not interested in philosophy but in social criticism. :wink:

Is that funny? … No.
is that an accident? … No.

Nietzsche was a nihilist respectively - because he was at least “a little bit” a philosopher - a nihilstic philosopher.

If Nietzsche had been an ILP member, in which subforum would he have posted the most?

Fact is that Kant had an entire philosophical systsem and that Hegel was the last philosopher who had an entire philosophical system. Since then there has never been a an entiere philosophical system and all entire philosophical systems have been systematically or not systematically been deconstructed or destroyed - by nihilists respectively nihilistic philosophers.

Philosophy was “born” in the Ancient Greece and means “love to wisdom” (“to” - not “of”). So we have to interprete and measure philosophy and philosophers mainly according to the Ancient Greek definition. So Nietzsche’s question “Were there already such philosophers?” (in: Beyond Good and Evil, aphorism 211, my translation) is more rhetoric than a serious question, because Nietzsche wanted the philosophers to be “commanders and lawgivers” (ibid) and the philosophy to be a “hammer” (ibid.). According to the the Ancient Greek definition of “philosophy” and “philosophers” philosophers are primarily not “commanders and lawgivers”; and when philosophy comes in like a “hammer”, then it is not a real philosophy but a nihilistic philosophy .

If Nietzsche is a member of the “third league of philosophy”, then Kant is the “champion” of the “first league of philosophy”.