Full disclosure: I’m currently a 1L student at an ABA-accredited law school in NYC.
The vast majority of states require that, as a condition of sitting for(i.e. taking) that state’s bar exam, any aspiring attorney must have graduated an ABA (American Bar Association) accredited law school. A few states require only that one have graduated from a regional or state-level accredited school, and there are also a few states which have potential alternative procedures, such as “reading for the law”. But, for most practical purposes, attending an ABA-accredited law school is a prerequisite for taking the bar exam.
Law school is also, like most higher education today, ridiculously expensive. Total law school debt very easily runs over $100,000 and can be much higher, which is, I would argue, one of the primary reasons that, although the country has an approximate shit-ton of lawyers, access to legal services remains out of reach for many, many people. Think about it: if you have $100,000 in debt principal (to say nothing of the generally non-subsidized interest over 3 years being added to principal plus interest rates in the high single digits if you’re lucky), then it’s no mystery that legal advice can cost an arm and a leg, even for relatively basic things like drafting a will, a standard lease document, etc.
To be clear, the high cost of legal education is not the only reason why legal help is so expensive, but it certainly plays a major role.
Which, together with a rhetorical question raised by an ex-convict in a legal pleading, got me thinking.
What real justification is there for requiring those taking the bar exam to have graduated from law school, let alone an ABA-accredited one? If the purpose of the bar exam is to determine who is and is not competent to practice law (i.e. it’s essentially a licensing requirement), then adding an extra and very expensive requirement on top of that makes no logical sense.
To (hopefully) illustrate, consider the hypothetical Person A and Person B.
Person A graduated #1 from the best law school in the country, and failed the bar exam.
Person B graduated last in his class from the worst law school in the country, but passed the bar exam.
The main difference between A and B: Person B can practice law, but Person A cannot.
If attending law school actually mattered for purposes of determining a person’s competency to practice law, wouldn’t one think that it should matter which law school one went to, what their class ranking was, etc.?
I submit that the fact that such criteria don’t matter for purposes of one’s (theoretical) ability to practice law are pretty strong evidence that the entire ABA accreditation scheme, and state/federal regulations which use it, are nothing more than arbitrary guild-like restrictions.
Thoughts?