I have ran across someone who has told me as ‘truth’ that the hebrew was misinterpretted from the words young girl into virgin, and that this has been a misconception for many many years.
Anyone have any facts against? Or any information on this matter?
The passage in Isaiah that you are referring to, refers to a young maiden not a virgin. It is believed that when Matthew (and then luke) were written in greek they mistranslated this phrase and attributed it as a foretelling of the christ. Since other savior gods were born of virgins, samson and moses included having mysterious circumstances in the very least, why not make their saviour god born of a virgin as well?
maiden means a girl is virginal. Now maid on the other hand does not. A young maid has had trips through the tulips, but, a young maiden is unsullied. So truly the correct word could be important. Obviously it was not important to Joseph so it really should not matter to anyone else, don’t you think?
Right, but Isaiah is refering to a woman that he has sex with and has a young man with this woman. He is self fulfilling his own prophecy so their is no need to apply it to christ, joseph or mary.