If at a given time one is not consciously aware of any sound whatsoever, they may think they are perceiving silence, a complete lack of sound. In this case silence would be an idea you conceive of, not something you hear. It is well understood that the human ear can discern only a small portion of the sounds that exist, so often when one thinks they perceive silence there are, in actuality, sound waves that they are not hearing. So does this mean that the idea of silence as a complete lack of sound probably began as a false conception? Does anyone know if modern science has confirmed the original assumption that there is a state where no sound exists?
Here is a related quote: “The tendency has always been strong to believe that whatever receives a name must be an entity of being, having an independent existence of its own: and if no real entity answering to the name can be found, men did not for that reason suppose that none existed, but imagined that it was something peculiarly abstruse and mysterious, too high to be an object of sense” -J.S. Mills
OK, so if if you close your eyes do you see blackness, or do you conceive of it as an idea? Do you agree with the following analogy: Silence is to Hearing as Blackness is to Seeing?
Sorry to load this up with questions but here are some that kind of sum up what I was trying to say or ask:
Are the senses of hearing and seeing null in the true lack of stimulation?
Is there ever a “true lack of stimulation” for the senses during life? or are the blind and deaf always so only to certain degree?
Please feel free to post anything related, not necessarily just pertaining to the questions.