How do modern Nietzschians deal with the (rather dramatic) changes in our understanding of Greek culture that has occured between when he was alive and the present?
How do these changes affect your understanding of him?
Like which?
Well, for example he treated Greece as a monolithic entity, largely confusing the Homeric period with the late classical period (that would be the first half of BoT).
The transition of oikos-style ruling to polis-style rule, which largely goes back to the first example.
And, of course, the fact that ‘stasis’ in Greek means ‘conflict’.
Where does he do the latter? And don’t you mean the early classical period?
I have always read Nietzsche as if he placed Homer in about the tenth century BCE, and never encountered any inconsistency. I also don’t think he ever considered it a monolithic entity - quite to the contrary.
Is that really a case of a “transition”? Did not both exist at the same time?
Among other things. Are you suggesting that ekstasis mean “the absence of conflict”?
Well, the late classical period for Greece. Early classical for the Western world.
It’s like talking about the Middle Ages, only to find out that the person means the greek middle ages in 800 BCE!
And the transition period between the oikos and polis would have occured well before period mentioned above. Even Perecles was well into the Polis period.
Sorry for the late reply, I had not noticed your last one.
But isn’t the classical period of Greece the fifth century? And no way did Nietzsche confuse that with the Homeric age.
In my book, roughly the sixth century is the archaic age. That is pre-classical.
You have yet to come with examples.
Whence do you derive these concepts? “The Polis period”? According to Claus Held, in my reading, at least, these two “periods” (outlooks) coexisted, the polis perspective being the perspective of public life and the oikos one being that of private life.
But wait, I think I see what you mean now. Do you mean oikos to mean “house” as in "the House of Agamemnon? Yes, then the oikos period is the Homeric period and the polis period the classical period. But where does Nietzsche confuse the two?