Hi Ned. Thank you for your follow up thoughts. You wrote; â€Love of money is obviously a bad thing in the new testament. But simply being rich is also portrayed negatively.
That would mean that the rich and wealthy Joseph of Arimathaea (Matt. 27:57) would have been portrayed negatively in the Bible. Was he? Please cite chapter and verse that portrays the rich and wealthy Joseph of Arimathaea negatively.
You haven’t commented on the rich and wealthy Solomon, rich and wealthy Job, rich and wealthy Abraham; all who are portrayed very positively in the Holy text (OT). Are you saying these men should have been portrayed negatively because they were rich? Did the Bible make a mistake by portraying them positively? Or, perhaps you are saying that it was a blessing to be rich in the OT era, but that blessing became a curse in the NT era? Did the Bible make a similar mistake about Joseph of Arimathaea? Please explain.
You wrote; â€Please provide the scripture verse where Jesus states that it’s ok to be rich, or where Paul councils early Christians that it’s ok to be rich.
I have cited many already. Here’s some more. Paul asserts the Christian right to be rich, but not the right to be “highminded†about it, or to “trust†in these riches. Paul makes this point perfectly in 1 Tim. 6: 16-18; “Charge them that are rich in this world, that they be not highminded, nor trust in uncertain riches, but in the living God, who giveth us richly all things to enjoy; That they do good, that they be rich in good works, ready to distribute, willing to communicate; (1 Tim. 6:16-18 ) [emphasis mine]. So you see Ned, it is not rich with money, but rich with the love of money that condemns (1 Tim. 6:10).
Paul directed the entire book of Philemon to a very rich and wealthy man named Philemon, whom Paul calls “brother†(v20), and who is highly praised throughout the entire book.
Paul demonstrates that Christ wants believers to be rich, and does not limit that “richness†in any way: “For ye know the grace of our Lord Jesus Christ, that, though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, that ye through his poverty might be rich†(2 Cor. 8:9) [emphasis is mine].
You wrote; †Really? And you know this for sure because?
Because of what I already stated in my last post Ned. You quoted Rev. 3:17 without citing the previous verses that set it up. In my last post I wrote: “First, this verse is not even speaking about individual wealthy persons at all. It is speaking to the corporate church at Laodicea (read the verses preceding the one you quoted and you will discover this to be so). Furthermore, the opening line of verse 17 that you quoted interprets itself. A church or even an individual for that matter who says; “I have acquired wealth and do not need a thing†– indicates that such a one has placed their trust exclusively in their wealth like an idol; which only demonstrates that their love of money, not their money, is their downfall (1 Tim. 6:10).†If you still think that I’m wrong regarding my interpretation of Rev. 3, please tell me why; and please use Rev. 3 as your proof text.
You quoted Matt. 19:23 which says; “Then said Jesus unto his disciples, Verily I say unto you, That a rich man shall hardly enter into the kingdom of heaven.â€
If you had read the preceding verses for context, you could have answered your own question Ned. Matt. 19: 16-22, the immediately preceding verses from the one that you quoted, reveals that the nature of the rich man Jesus referred to is a rich person who placed his trust in his riches. If your thesis was true, then Jesus would have condemned this rich person at the outset of their dialogue; because this person came to Jesus already rich. Yet quite the opposite occurred: Christ engaged in a meaningful and loving dialogue with him while he was a rich person. It was only afterwards, when the rich person demonstrated that he had “love of money,†rather than just “money†(1 Tim. 6:10) that he failed as Christ’s disciple.
Do you think it is hard for a rich man to enter the kingdom. Is so, why? If not, why not?
If it’s a rich or poor man who places his trust and love in money, yes. If it is a rich or poor man who is open-handed, generous and does not place his trust or love in money, then no. It is the “love of money†not “money†(1 Tim. 6:10) that condemns some rich – though certainly not all or even a majority. Passion