How come in Exodus 12, God goes on for so long about not eating yeast on passover and making it so explicitly clear that the Jews should not use yeast in making their bread on this day, but then, later in Exodus 12:34, it says: “So the people took their dough before the yeast was added, and carried it on their shoulders in kneading troughs wrapped in clothing.” and, in 12:39, it says, “With the dough they had brought from Egypt, they baked cakes of unleavened bread. The dough was without yeast because they had been driven out of Egypt and did not have time to prepare food for themselves.”? (Is this kind of like the 2 different creation myths in the opening of Genesis?)
To me this makes it seem like the Isrealites were intending to defy the word of God, except that, by chance, the Egyptians drove them out before they had the chance tp do so.
Also, why does God make Paroah’s hear more unyeilding and, thus, imposes more suffering on the ruler? Maybe, if God didn’t interfere with Pharoa’s will, the Pharoa would have relented earlier and let the Jews go earlier of his own volition and not have suffered so much.
Also, why does god want the Jews to plunder the Egyptians? This seems excesive. It almost reminds me of Odiseus’s hubris.
Basically so far God is coming off pretty vengeful and unmerciful. Of course he is nice to the Jews, but not to the egyptians.
Oh, and one more question, Which translation of the Bible is the best to use? I have the new international version, and it’s been working fine for me, but i just wanted to know if there is any better or more widely approved ones. (consider the fact that my main interest in the bible consists of better understanding many literary allusions to it. Should i then get the King James version?)
nev