This in relation to a discussion I had last night with someone.
The question is this: Can I make the statement, “I experience X, and therefore Y exist.” And follow this with the statement, “I experience A, but B does not exist.”
I’ll attempt to elucidate. That is, I am here, right now, typing on this keyboard. And therefore, I make the assumption that this experience is true, that I exist, that the keyboard exist, that the Internet exist, that this forum exist, etc. And this is all, of course, based on experience.
So, if I experience morality, that is moral dilemmas, moral wrongs, moral goods, situations where what we dub morality is present, does it seem logical to state that morality does NOT exist?
This appears very contradictory. It seems that I have no more reason to believe in one than the other. That is, if one experience is accepted as true, how can the other be false? I can examine them, and make statements about them and be objective (to some degree) about them. One person will experience and see them slightly differently than I do, and that seems fine.
But it seems (to me) a great leap to say that one experience is true and one is false. They’re obviously different, and have different qualities about them. One is a tangible experience, one is more psychological in nature. But can the existence of it (morality) be solely dependent upon that? That seems a lose justification.
Anyway, I’m not sure how clear this is. If you want something more specific (examples or such) please, let me know. This is just something I’d like to see discussed.