Ive had similar threads and discussions on this before, for example:
ilovephilosophy.com/phpbb/vi … p?t=153911
and have been unable to find anyone to prove to me anything which is “morally” wrong. To use the same argument used here:
ilovephilosophy.com/phpbb/vi … p?t=156414
you can say that something is right or wrong but it is based entirely on social conditioning and upbringing. It is not applicable to all persons or cultures.
This entire statement is ludicrous.
First rapists, murderers, pedophiles, arsonists, criminals in general do not desensitize themselves from a universal moral code. They may in some cases be desensitized to their actions via too many possible means to go into here but they dont do it to themselves.
Secondly, what is the “universal moral code”? There is no action which is universally immoral, no not even murder. A study of sociology worldwide will show that anything considered by you to be wrong or immoral is accepted somewhere as “normal”.
To say that one lacks a moral conviction is based upon the accepted morality of the society in which he is in. In asmuch as “brain-damaged” persons do not reflect the accepted or expected morality is where the anwers to your question lie.
Through the study of psychopathic behavior it is discovered that they (the offender) is aware that society will consider their actions “wrong”, but they dont seem wrong to them. It isnt a matter of “desensitization” it is a matter of personal interpretation.
The development of morality from infant to adult is a situation dependant on the upbringing of the child. If you raise your child to believe something is ok they will grow up believing it and will pass those beliefs onto their children, however, having said that, there is always the chance they will disagree based on their own personal convictions (usually influenced by media, society or peers).
The truth as I see it, is that there is no true standard of morality. It is all dependant on what is right or wrong to you personally.