I’ve been thinking of the metaphysics of universals lately and what that implies about their spatiotemporal qualities. By ‘universals’ I mean principles such as “all bachelors are male” or “all circles are round” or “Socrates is mortal if he is a man and men are mortal”, etc. Classically, these are said to be timeless and spaceless, meaning that they don’t take particular positions in space or time. You can’t point to a particular point in space and say “There it is - the principle of all circles being round!” Likewise, you can’t say “the principle of all circles being round is true only between 2:00 and 3:00 on Tuesdays and Thursdays”. Thus, they are said to bear no such spatiotemporal properties.
This has lead to a certain conundrum for me, stemming mainly from the fact that I take such universals to be projections of thought, and although I take thought to be spaceless (damned be the physicalists!
), I have trouble calling it timeless. Thoughts come and go in time, do they not? But if thoughts are time bound, and if universals are projections of thought, wouldn’t that make universals time bound as well? But how does one understand “all circles are round” to be true only at those times when one thinks it? What do we say of the principle at all other times?
Of course, I would expect one to immediately say that the principle holds true simply in virtue of the fact that there are circles in the world and they are round, and that these circles and their roundness are sustained independently of our thoughts. But this clings to an objectivist framework, and I’m a subjectivist. I say that things acquire their realness or truth from the experience of them - that is, that their realness or truth is constituted by the experience of them.
So, you may say, that’s just your problem. Give up your subjectivism and adopt objectivism. All your problems will be over. This may be true of this particular problem (although I would acquire a whole slew of other problems with objectivism), but why should I do that when I have a particular solution to the one I’m grappling with.
My solution is as follows. I see no reason to suppose that, metaphysical as they may be, universals can’t be time bound. I think the whole meaning of what it is for a thing to be ‘metaphysical’ would break down if such things could be space bound, but I think we might be making a mistake if we insisted in the same vein that they also be timeless. Maybe some metaphysical things can be time bound.
In particular, universals would be true only in those moments when one thinks them. At all other times, they wouldn’t be false, of course, but their truth would be indeterminate, and their existence would be nill. What would make them universal is not so much that they are always true but that they would never project from thought as falsehoods (but there would be times when they simply don’t project).
I believe the notion that universals are timeless originates from taking metaphysics to be an objective science, the consequence being that, as Plato demonstrates, universals are taken to have an objective existence independent from the mind, and since we always come to apprehend them as true, we conclude that they are always true even when we aren’t apprehending them. This gives them the allure of being true independently of time - that is, that their truth depends in no way on one particular time or another, and are therefore, in some sense, “outside” time.
But if we grant that universals are projections of thought, then this difficulty (with apprehending them in any way other than true) can be reduced to the fact that we don’t ever have the opportunity to apprehend them at times when we aren’t thinking them (even in our thought experiments).
I would further conclude that the spatial properties of universals not only differ from their temporal ones, but are directly opposed to them by the very nature of universals. That is to say, whereas universals are such that they necessarily can’t take on spatial positions, they necessarily must take on temporal ones. This would even be true in an objectivist metaphysics. Plato must say that such universals hold true necessarily in time, and at every point in time, not that they are somehow “outside” time.
I’m probably going to receive a lot of flack from the physicalists and positivists, but to them I say (depending precisely on what their responses are) that an attack on my metaphysical position in virtue solely that it is metaphysics is to miss the point by miles. My concern in this thread is purely analytic - I wish to determine what follows from the meaning of my initial terms and assumptions - the positivists should appreciate that.