The mount is not Holy in some objective way. Holiness is like beauty…in the eye of the beholder. If we were to go to the Wailing Wall, we are under no necessity to feel what the Jew feels at that location. But just because I do not necessarly feel anything particularly special in that place does not mean that it is any less holy. Holiness is an attitude humans maintain towards a certain object or idea. Thus, just because a faith or religion or holy place is anything but, in your eyes, it does not establish a necessity that it is not holy and worthy of devotion in someone else eyes.
Now, let me explain why to me a nonfoundationalist theology can only be incoherent. We are, first of all, not doing epistemology, but theology. It is not that we are trying to find a justification for the belief Theos; that is taken as granted; but doing a study of the Theos. To do theology, one must accept the foundation of the subject of study, either as a private idea or as a public object, etc. One must be able to define the object (Theos) of one’s inquiry, and that definition, advanced, believed, true or false, serves as the foundation through which we accept or deny what has been before and advance/create, the future. Radical nihilism, or course, is impotent and cannot do this.
To satisfy the use of nonfoundationalism, one must give up all foundations, not just pick and choose from the ones available.(If even that is still possible). It is inconsistent, as in Vattimo’s case to speak of a non-religious religion. Either/or, if you ask me. There is a fear of decision here. If you (as if I am talking to him) do not accept Christian religion, why don’t you simply become an atheist, a Buddhist, Hindu, or even create a new religion that is entirely consistent? “You cannot put new wine in old skins…”
Now let’s discuss the probable basis for belief you propose. Historicity. It is unclear in what you’ve written here, what the term means to you. Perhaps you’ll elaborate? But pending what you may add to this, I’ll comment on what rests before me. My question is: Is historicity, in any definition possible, tangible? Is it a “known”? But what-- a known fact? A known interpretation? The second will be my understanding for now, since you’ve seemingly accepted that there are no facts but interpretations…including this one. The basis for your belief is an interpretation on other’s interpretations. But how is this more tangible than the current perspective? The basis of your belief is still without basis. Many interpretations are possible; even probable, so what measure or method is left to dicern one over another? The belief in the historicity of belief no less intangible nor any less unknown…unless you can answer the questions Job could not.
What should I take to be the meaning of this cryptic statement:
“The Theos then becomes the event itself instead of names for it.”
I am here assuming that you mean that “God” is a name we give to an event. Perhaps that “Oceanic feeling” of Freud’s friends? How do you study the event, when all you have is interpretations? Because you have not read anyone’s mind, all you have is the interpretation of an event. There is no “itself”, but narrations of it that can be communicated as idea. The historicity of a belief is a matter of faith. We are told that many crowded around Jesus and saw Him perform miracles. Yet, many did not believe what the Christians believed. Many will see a man lay hands on children, soliciting that the Spirit may eneter them and see them show an effect…but yet will not believe that this means that the Spirit actually enter the children. We have now names for what back then were demon-possessed people. We treat them with medicine, not with words of power. The historicity of an event is not useful to determine the historicity of belief. Was the event a demonic-possession or an epileptic attack? Weere the children inbued with the Spirit or prey of their own suggestability? How can the external qualities of the event settle the actual internal qualities of the event? I can describe what the children did outwardly, but I have no way of knowing the intervention of a Spirit. It might look exactly as a fantasy, an induced state etc. My own perspective is the only thing that can settle the interpretation.
It is curious to say:
“Man doesn’t live by belief in facts because there are none.”
Curious because that in-itself sounds very close to a “fact” of which you say there are none. There are no facts? Is that a fact or just an interpretation? And if an interpretation, an interpretation of what? And if it is just another interpretation of a previous interpretation, ad infinitum, then how do you risk an assesment of what there is and of what there is none?
This is the paradox of relativism and postmodernism as well, at it’s most radical.
I think you’re misled by the narrow belief that:
"Men put their faith in “facts” because they are deluded into believing them as “facts.”
Men, mankind, live by their little faiths. We are limited creatures that have expanded our abilities by our faiths. No one, none, not even you is without some faith, including, for example, the metaphysical claim that “men”, meaning, other samples of the group you and I inhabit, are deluded into belief of facts. How can you know when men are deluded or not when you accept no fact…not even, theoretically, the fact that men are deluded? If you believe this because of the experience you’ve had, that still can only justify stating that you, in the past, have put faith in facts because you were deluded. Then there is the faith you now hold, that because you have learned or discovered, that there are no facts but only interpretations, including this one, that this interpretation is not just another delusion. You hold as fact (which is no more than a more strongly held conviction in a given, accepted, interpretation) that one perspective is prone to mislead men, while the other one reveals to men.
What then, in the end can you reveal?
God as having been incorrectly perceive? That He is not omnipotent, but a little fragile? Sure, why not? There are benefits to such an interpretation. For one the Problem of Evil, held widely as a problem of logic, would be dispelled because we would no longer have a premise that clashes with our other premises.
There is Evil? Sure, because while God wishes us many good things, He is incapable of preventing all evil, therefore there is evil. Brilliant!
But then, how is that any different from atheism? Why maintain this feeble God, this former King relegated to the role of an spectator without any potency in the affairs of His, so-once-called Servants?
Why not simply say:“There is perceived evil, because there is no God and we’re all alone.”?
How is this…“fragile thing”, worthy of my faith and devotion?