And you do not think that the discovery itself could be the problem, the mistake? You need light in order to discover mass particles. So for observers their result can only be and is always that “mass was before light”, but that does not need to be true.
No, but you are welcome to examine the evidence.
All that I need is logic. The logic dictates that mass is formed without photons. And it is well accepted that photons form from the action of atoms. Logic also dictates that there can be nothing to form photons if there is no mass. But perhaps I made a mistake in my logic. Verify it for me.
I was referring to the the discoverer, the observer, the empiricism when I wrote that “you need light in order to discover mass particles”, although it is also right that you need light, at least “a bit”, for the use of your brain for logic.
INterestingly it was found that life forms release small amounts of photons internally, less healthy organisms, fewer. There is some speculation that this is communicative. IOW it helps the organism work as a unit . given that photons are moving faster than, for example, nerve transmissions. Instead of domino type in relation to light rather slow cascading effects, you get almost instantious communication directly through the whole organism. Of course brains would be included.
My theory is that photons are analogous to sound waves. Sound waves are merely the product of movement on the atoms, altering our conscious perception. Photons are merely movment of the inverted space, aether, and they become slowed down, tangible to our realm. Sounds waves are to normal space, what photons are to inverted space, non space.
My brain is in max overdrive.
A little. But sound waves quickly disperse whereas light photons very, very slowly disperse, depending on what they are traveling through. Through extremely vacuous space (between the galaxies) photons do not disperse much at all. They are tiny puffs of the medium (the affectance field) that hold together as long as there isn’t much interference. Sound waves require a medium and very quickly disperse regardless of the medium. Photons travel best without any medium.
Sound waves don’t seem to exist. They seem to be an inversion of what they are not, an invisible cause causing atoms to move to where they are not.
Photons seem to exist, and atoms force photons to obey them, rather than causing atoms to move to where they are not. Since they are the inverse of sound waves, I would posit that photons that actually heat atoms, cause atoms to move towards them, becoming like photons (since heat is a chaotic sine wave function.)
Music to go with this: youtube.com/watch?v=yIYuVT6R3ec
You under estimate the power of schizophrenia. When there is no consciousness, time will travel infinitely, consciousness may be a pesky problem.
They aren’t really in the form of a “sine function”. Sine functions/waves are used as an approximation to simplify the math. There are no natural sine waves in nature, but sine functions can be used to make approximations for a variety of things.
There must be some kind of mass before the light. This is a misperception that photons/light is needed in the first place toform or discover mass, thus photons must be formed before anything else.
Some people may find it extremely naive but the fact of the matter is that one needs a mind to observe mass, not photons.
Now, one may ask again how can even a mind can see/observe mass without photons?
The answer is simple. It is not mind but seeing organs (eyes) that requires photons to obseve mass or existence. Mind can observe the mass without the help the eyes/photons.
I am not sure but it looks to me that some science theorists tend to take the clue from the Bible (let there be light).
With love,
Sanjay
No. It was just a thought - not more. And it is true: a discoverer, an observer, an empiricist needs light in order to be capable of discovering, observing, being an empiricist. The idea that the light was before the mass is interesting but not necessarily true. I have learned that the reverse is true. But nevertheless: I am always skeptic.
I think that the theologians merely injected the BB into science for their own agenda, whether good or bad. From my perspective, people need to go through and beyond the truth in order to restore the light.
And I have been speaking strictly about the formation of mass, not the observation or discovering of mass (with the assumption that there was a BB, despite being certain that there never was).
That’s why i called it a chaotic sine function.
According to RM:AO „existence is that which has affect“. If we want to know what came first and look at the natural forces for a while (only for a while!), then we have to say that the main force affectance refers to is electromagnetism, thus not gravity.
There are no forces in RM:AO. But the most fundamental form of existence is the electric potential (Potential-to-Affect, PtA), immediately followed by the propagation of electric potential (“propagation of affect”, dPtA/dt), then comes the electro-magnetic field due to the propagation being delayed and thus compressed (d²PtA/dt²). The gravity/mass field later forms from the infinite degree of chaos formed from the ultra minuscule electromagnetic pulses randomly impeding each other such as to form the increasing more dense gravity field until it forms mass (d³PtA/dt³). After that, the constructs are in the form of molecules (just as with society).
And of course, none of these came before the others in time. They have all always existed.
If I read correctly, you say they always existed, and I imply this is because they are randomly moving around in different configurations, and eventually conciousness pops up during one of these configurations. My question to you is, when consciousness ceases, will the universe continue to expand, what will happen exactly when there is no more consciousness? Is there a way that the parameters of life will never become within its random potential access range, or is the access range of potential infinite, and it has no bounds? (Ie. the universe is only expanding because we are conscious, but as soon as all planets and spaceships are destroyed and the possibility of life seems to be impossible because the universe has expanded so much and atoms cant form structures anymore, all of a sudden physics are disobeyed and new planets/structures form?
Consciousness has always existed, merely in differing places. And the universe is not expanding. From time to time, black-holes collide into each other and create new galaxies. New life forms. The universe goes on … infinitely. It is mathematically impossible for the universe to not exist … and life within it.
And RM:AO is never “disobeyed”.
Do you really mean “mathematically impossible” (and why?) or “logically impossible” or both?
The Universe as it regards the principles of Time works precisely as I say it does.
12 = Beginning Of Time
(+16 Seconds)
28 = Inner Circle Of Time
(+16 Seconds)
44 = Outer Circle Of Time
(+16 Seconds)
60 = End Of Time
Essentially, the Universe cycles every 60 hence why we have 60 Minutes and 60 Seconds.
Now, 60 is easy. The mysterious number of this Time system is “24” which is why we live each day in a 24 Hour algorithm.
I know the formula to Time, so I’ll show you the inner digital programming of “24” and how it expands into “474” and “3174”, which are the same numbers by the way.
The Formula Of Time: 24 x 54 x 84 x 18 x 18 x 18 = 634894848 (See all those 48’s? It just shows you I know what I am doing precisely).
634894848 / 2 = [3174]474[24]
3174 = 24
474 = 24
24 = 24
8 + 8 + 8 = 24
8 x 8 x 8 = 512 Bytes
Computer language, learn it, speak it, live it.
For more information on my immortal movement that will prove once and for all that we are not alone and I am in touch with a higher power: youtube.com/watch?v=78uNnlvtieE
What if we don’t want to exist? Isn’t it unethical for the universe to not make us exist, without our consent?
Do you really mean “mathematically impossible” (and why?) or “logically impossible” or both?
I consider mathematics and logic to be the same in that math is merely a subset of logic - logic applied to quantities.
I think that I already went through this on this thread, but if you are interested in the math:
The Absolute Impossibility of Nothingness - Ever
Since this subject keeps coming up, I thought that I would polish this post up a bit to include the whole real number system and put it in its own thread.
Okay, now given that you have 10 cups with the random possibility of each cup having as many as 10 coins in it, what is the possibility that you have the same number of coins in all 10 cups?
Mathematically that would be b^10[/b] or 0.0000000001.
The state of nothingness and the state of absolute homogeneity are actually the same thing. If there is no distinction in affect at all in every point in space, there is no universe. Thus for a universe to exist, there must be distinction or variation in affect between the points in space. What is the possibility that every point in space is of the exact same value of PtA (potential-to-affect)?
Well, let’s define the term as the specific infinite series,
infA ≡ [1+1+1+…]Just a single infinite line would give us infA^2 points on that line if you want to include all infinitesimal lengths, all “real numbers”. And assuming nothing is forcing any particular PtA value, each point on the line might have a value anywhere from infinitesimal to infinite, the range of that same infA^2 but for PtA.
So the possibility for every point on the line to have the same PtA value (given steps of 1 infinitesimal) would be;
Possibility of homogeneous line = (1/infA)^((infA)^2).That is 1 infinitesimal reduced by itself infinitely an infinite number of times. And right there is the issue. Also in 3D space, you actually have the infinite real-number cube (to simplify from spherical) of;
Possibility of homogeneous space = (1/infA)^(infA^6)Normally in mathematics if your number has reached 1 infinitesimal, it is accepted as zero and is certainly close enough to zero for all practical purposes but we are literally infinitely less than infinity less than 1 infinitesimal. For 3D space, we are looking at 1 infinitesimal times itself infinitely an infinite number of times, infinitely times an infinite number more times, and infinitely times an infinite number more times.
Given an infinite amount of time (an infinite timeline, another infA^2 of points in time) and with or without causality, the possibility of running across homogeneity of space is;
Possibility of homogeneity through all space = infA * (1/infA)^(infA^6)
Possibility of homogeneity through all time = (1/infA)^(infA^12)With a possibility being that degree of infinitely small, not only can it never randomly end up homogeneous even through an infinite number of trials (an infinite time line, never getting up to even 1 infinitesimal possibility), but it can’t even be forced to be homogeneous. A force is an affect. If all affects are identical, the total affect is zero. What would be left in existence to force all points to be infinitely identical?
But if that isn’t good enough for you, realize that those calculations are based on stepped values of merely 1 infinitesimal using a standard of infA. In reality, each step would be as close to absolute zero as possible without actually being absolute zero using a standard of as close to absolute infinity as possible,
AbsInf ≡ highest possible number toward absolute infinity.And then of course,
1/AbsInf = would be the lowest possible number or value.Thus we have,
Possibility of homogeneity through all time = (1/AbsInf)^(Absinf^12)Now we have truly absolute zero possibility because if we are already as close to absolute zero as possible with “1/AbsInf”, as soon as we multiply that by any fraction, we have breached absolute zero, impossibly small. And we have breached absolute zero by a factor of AbsInf^12 … well, well beyond absolute zero possibility of homogeneity.
Thus Absolute Homogeneity, “Nothingness”, is absolutely impossible.
There are a few new concepts involved in that reasoning (for most people) so it might take a little time to digest, but the logic and math is simple enough and irrefutable.
The existence of life in the universe has a similar reasoning to it directly implying that life has to have always existed somewhere in the universe. In fact, at all times there are an infinite number of "you"s throughout the universe, due to similar math, and always has been. You are not new to the universe.
What if we don’t want to exist? Isn’t it unethical for the universe to not make us exist, without our consent?
???
What if you don’t want a brick to be hard? Is it unethical that it is?