What is more likely of these two things?

What is more likely?

  1. For someone to be self-deceived towards happiness.

  2. For someone to be self-deceived towards depression.

Or can we say one is more likely?

inb4 ‘it’s all contextual’ as the statement ‘it’s all contextual’ assumes an objective context.

I don’t think people can self-deceive themseves into happiness, only pleasure.

I think depression comes largely from ignorance and so I would say it is more likey for one too deceive themselves into depression.

None of the above.

X. For someone to be self-deceived towards comfort

I don’t think it’s a question of what’s more likely. I think it depends mostly on the individual who is self-deceiving. In other words, how desperate is one to be happy that they are willing to sacrifice reality for the sake of that and live in a matrix-kind-of world.

It is JUST as likely for another individual to be deceived toward depression. Neither of the individuals are looking realistically at their lives.

Wouldn’t the statement ‘it’s all contextual’ assume a personal context insofar as the individuals go?

Since relation to self is inadmissible, I cannot say that one piece of gibberish is better than the other.

it really depends what you mean by depression

I think sorrow is like the underlying reality of human existence

those who deceive themselves into happiness basically just momentarily deny awareness of their impending downfall

but I think you can be happy about ideals without being deceived of your underlying unhappiness