Now, before I begin, I want to say that I’ve been a determinist. I understand that if we accept that cause and effect is universal, then we have no free will. Of course I couldn’t really give you an example of human action that had not been caused. There is always a cause to human action.
Now, one could argue about quantum physics, but even if it is true, it doesn’t necessarily apply to the human psyche. I’ll consider quantum physics a digression from my discussion.
Anyway after going over some arguments in syllogistic form, I was inspired to write a better argument for free will, because all of the arguments I read sucked. They really sucked.
The first problem with free will is that it is often defined as “the ability to do otherwise”.
This idea doesn’t really help it’s case, since we could never show that one could have done otherwise then what one did. Even if one had free will, one might still not do otherwise.
So, I would say that free will is the ability to choose between equal desires.
Now then:
(1)I have desires X and Y
(2)Desires X and Y are contrary to each other.
(3)Since they are contrary, I cannot simultaneously act on desires X and Y.
(4)Desires X and Y are not hierarchical. (We desire them equally.)
(5) The only cause for acting on either desire can be free will.
(C) Therefore free will exists.
Now, you couldn’t really deny (1) if the case is that it isn’t true, then we aren’t talking about the same case.
Now, could we deny that there are contrary desires? My example of a contrary pair of desires would be X=Wanting to stay home. Y=Wanting to go to work. Albeit, some people don’t want to go to work for the immediate benefit of going to work, but we still desire going to work, even if we see it as a means to an end. This is all that I mean by contrary desires.
To deny (3) is to say that we can simultaneously do contrary things. I can both go to work and stay home. One could nit-pick and say one could work at home. However, in this case I’m either not *going to work. It seems, prima facie, like theoretical bullshit to point out the distinction between “going” and “staying”. However, to not see this point is to miss my entire point or contrary desires.
Now, you could deny (4). That desires are non-hierarchical. This seems like the most plausible route. However, consider the way we “measure” how much one desires something. Had I chosen to go to work, you would say that I desired going to work more. Had I chosen to stay home, you would say that I desired to stay home more. Before I have chosen, you cannot say which I desire more. So what is the default position? That needs are hierarchical or that they are not? Simply having chose a desire doesn’t mean I desired it more, not any more than it means that I chose between to equal desires. I think this is where the debate will mostly take place.
Of course, you can’t really deny (5) without denying (4). If you said that there was another cause for my action, that cause would have tipped the scale and there would no longer be equal desires.
And now (C). If you didn’t deny any of the previous premises, then you would have to accept this conclusion. Provided the argument form is valid. (I haven’t taken a formal logic course, so that is also possible.)
Anyway, I think if we look at free will this way (The ability to chose between equal desires.) then it ends the free will vs determinism debate. Though, not in a decisive way. The heart of the matter is the existence of equal, contrary desires in a single individual. Where ever these exist, free will exists. Unless we can find a way to disprove that we have equal desires, we can’t really prove determinism is always the case when it comes to human experience.
To clarify, it’s not that I think I’ve proven free will, I just think I’ve found a way to show that it is just as explanatory as determinism and not any more unlikely than determinism.