koifer
December 6, 2007, 6:21pm
61
Sure. Why not? So let’s just stop. If you won’t agree on a definition we have no basis for an argument. Smart move.
Rhinoboy
December 7, 2007, 5:15pm
62
Moreno:
I think a strong case could be made for saying that the imbalance is the feeling of being depressed. In other words the imbalance is an effect and not a cause. The pharmacological approach is addressing, often, a symptom, for example, and never really getting at causes.
That imbalance does not cause the feelings, they are one and the same. A part of the same pattern. We have no reason to accept this model over others, for example emotion/past experience based ones, or cognitive/b. based ones.
I can describe the physics of a kiss, but it may not help the shy teenage boy with his problem. In fact it is probably completely besides the point.
I agree, that it says nothing about the condition.
Rhinoboy
December 7, 2007, 5:16pm
63
seeing as thats what we are discussing it realy does matter
Timocrates
December 8, 2007, 1:06pm
64
Aidan, maybe you should try a more potent antidepressant, just as an experiment?..I think I might. From a nihilistic point of vew, being miserable is just as pointless as attempting to transcend it, and if you can’t transcend it then oh well. Why not try them?