I have always found this idea rather puzzling, that the death of Jesus is represented as a human sacrifice.
To me it never made much sense to me. The usual response from Xians is the stock phrase “he died to save our sins”, or something like that.
This seems in compatible with the idea of an omnipotent, omniscient god. Why would god have to act in this way. The other phrase in “explanation” is “God gave his only begotten son,”.
There are a few contradictions here. If a god is omnipotent, then he can beget as many sons as he wishes. But there are bigger issues. “Gave” in what way? Gave to whom? To fulfil what moral law? To whom is such an act appealing to? Surely this implies that God is acting to a standard beyond himself in some way; that he was imperfect.
So how does killing a rabbi, save our sins? To what universal Karma does God have to appeal to, what higher order of good?
Having studied sacrifice in the ancient world, this act is even more puzzling to the modern world. The Greeks were smart. The slaying of the fatted calf had many functions. It meant that everyone got to eat, before the meat rotted, that it was a massive carnival act of communion that brought the community together. God/s got to share in the feast. Greeks would select the 'special bits" (actually stuff like the spleen and pancreas that were unpalatable), the bits that only gods would favour. They would be burned and the smoke ascending to heaven would indicate god/s pleasure.
The bottom line is that giving to god meat and other libations would bring favour from the divine will.
This is the spirit in which Jesus’s death was seen 2000 years ago. But this is not the sort of God that Xity later insisted upon. The Crucifixion seems incompatible with a limitless god, but a petty one.
Any thing missed?