I’ve been reading Descartes’ meditations lately and in it he starts out with two doubts which could render his opinions doubtful, and thus not certain. The first reason for doubt is that he does not know whether he is asleep and thus creating all things he sees. The second reason for doubt is that he could be of such a nature as to be always wrong even in matters which seem to him clear and distinct, i.e. his intuitions. These two doubts render him certain of only one thing. That is that he is a thinking thing. Yet in meditation III, in one paragraph he manages to dish out this conclusion: “So now i seem to to able to lay it down as a general rule that whatever i perceive very clearly and distinctively is true.” He does not address those two doubts he mentioned before concluding this. Instead, his reasoning for concluding this is this; Since he is certain that he exists, he is also as certain of what is required for him to know this. This is that he had a certain and distinct perception of his assertion about his own existence. And thus since clear and distinct produced him certainty in his first item of knowledge, he takes it that it will produce him certainty at all times. So, with this path, or method, Descartes goes on to prove God, and then that he is not prone to error.
Was Descartes a coward? I say this because he starts out using his reasons for doubt as a device with which to make his intuitions invalid, as is very clear in his first meditation, when he “admits” (that’s the word he uses, hint hint) that without God, he could not be certain of anything. Yet, later on in his 5th and 6th meditations he has God do only one thing. That is assure him that he be certain in things he has forgotten the proofs to. Clearly, Descartes lied to himself. I’m guessing halfway through his 3rd meditation he realized he was heading towards circular reasoning, and so did not mention his two reasons up until after he had established “as a general rule” that whatever he perceives very clear and distinctively is true.