Stopped Clock Paradox - Analysis

That was sounding really like progress, except…

Are you saying that it is merely because the exact timing would have to be infinitely perfect that neither clock would stop?

If so, that isn’t the issue. We can give a single photon’s width leeway for distance and timing concerns and still have the same problem.

But if that is not the case, then you have made perhaps the greatest sign of progress so far (along with FC). But also you have suggested an impossibility that isn’t entirely impossible, yet would come pretty close to impossible. And there is a little more to the story before resolve is satisfied.

There are two basic theories in question;
A) The observational consistency of the speed of light
B) The relativity of simultaneity.

The simultaneity issue is merely a distraction away from the more concerning issue (A). So I arranged to remove it from the picture by having separate engines accelerating at whatever value necessary to ensure that they both arrived together at a distance X (as measured by the station) from the station clock. All the while the train clock is being held centered between those two engines. So the simultaneity of flashing is guaranteed at the moment both clocks are centered.

Additionally any length contraction and/or time dilation concerns have been eliminated because the time reading is irrelevant and the only concern for exact distance is that the length “X” is the same on each side of each clock, but irrelevant whether it is the same from one frame to the other. The centeredness at the moment of flash is all that matters.

So the only concern is now (A), the theory of observational consistency of the speed of light. And it seems that the theory requires a false prediction. But you have been told that it has been proven to be true. Of course you have never seen that proof.

So the options concerning that theory are;
A) True
B) False
C) Other.

And then of course, if not true, then what might be true instead?

Really? I’ve been following this for a while. If you would like to see what SR would actually say about this scenario, see either of my very detailed posts on the subject earlier in this thread.

So you arranged to simply violate, by fiat, the laws of the physics that you claimed you were going to test. If SR is correct, then it is impossible in principle to arrange for two systems of coordinates to have the same standard for simultaneity (unless they are the same system of coordinates with an arbitrary constant added to each coordinate).

One cannot test a theory with a thought experiment if one of the assumptions made is in direct contradiction with the theory.

Essentially, this paradox is “when we assume both SR and its contradiction, we get a contradiction”. This is pathetic not merely as a presentation of science, but also as a presentation of logic.

And clearly the answer here is C: James is lying to us, either that he has read anything on SR or about what SR says.

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I realize that if one accepts SR, then velocities can not simply be additive. They can never add up to beyond the speed of light, for example. But I am doing what James proposes, which is to try to think without relativity as an a priori in mind.

For me it’s not that difficult to understand in terms of SR (VO makes it pretty natural, reality is intepreted in terms of the perspective, including physical laws) but I am intruiged by James’ questioning of Relativity’s issue of simultaneity and limit of c.

I basicaly like to challenge myself.

Yes thats what I meant with my example.
I was just fishing a bit, trying to ‘‘escape’’ thinking strictly in terms of Relativity.

Exactly, the light-PtA (by virtue of which it has a propoagating limit) does not represent PtA with respect to the spaceship and is thus not limited to c.

It’s simple of course, but I have to get out of the reference-frame-thinking for a moment and understand what James means. I’m not sure at all that I am saying anything relevant here though.

He’s suggesting that it must be simultaneous because of symmetry. The station midpoint is aligned with the train midpoint. Therefore, the front of the train is a fixed distance ahead of the midpoint and the rear is a fixed distance behind the midpoint. Looking from that station at the train, the distances are equal. Looking from the train at itself, the distances are equal. Looking from the train at the station, the distances are equal. Looking from the station at itself, the distances are equal.
He concludes that if the flash occurs there, then it must be simultaneous in both frames. (All things being equal :smiley: )

He doesn’t care about a contracted distance because the contraction will be equal relative to the midpoint.

James, yes I accept that we might arrange the situation so that simultaneity is possible with respect to the time/distance affectance dimensions of a photon leaving or impacting something. What I was trying to consider is not that it is necessarily impossible for two photons to achieve some simultaneity due to their small stature of affectance, but rather that it is undeniable that “everything is always in motion”. If this is the case, and it is, then simultaneity becomes a function of accounting for all motions acting upon objects either from which photons begin or at which they end/are measured.

If you are correct about your view on light, how do you explain the measured consistency of speed of light? There have been many measurements confirming the constancy of c, even such as where light of varying energies was measured to all be the same speed regardless of this variance in energy level. Why do we always measure c as constant, if it is not?

Einstein’s theory of SR arose because he conceptualized that light leaving any emitter should travel at a velocity independent of that emitter. This is because Maxwell posited that light was more like a property of “space” itself, a quanta of minimal EM, the wave produced by the cycling between magnetic and electrical change at a minimu threshold of such a cycling.

In other words, I don’t see how RM is inconsistent with what Maxwell and later Einstein were saying about quanta of EMR structure and propagation.

I see that someone’s brain finally got to the most relevant question (too much fear or faith and the mind simply will avoid the relevant questions). But before we get into that;
A, B, or C?

Also remember (if you read that part), the law concerning “equal state + equal treatment = equal result” is not merely a physical law, but an ontological law. Violation of that law invalidates ALL experimental data for all experiments throughout all of Science.

And because of that law, as the engines start up from a stand still wherein they are in the same frame as the station, if given equal trust, they absolutely cannot change the distance between them. That doesn’t mean that the distance will be perceived one way or another, but what it does mean, is that all parties already know that it is impossible that the distance between the engines has changed.

Of course given the freedom to change the engine trust to whatever you want, further ensures that the distance between the engines matches X distance. And as phyllo pointed out, any contraction issues are irrelevant because;

So far, given the measurements of c’s consistency, along with Einstein’s conceptualization of c’s constancy leading to successful predictions and measurement outcomes (as in the commonly referenced GPS system), I go with A.

Also you’ve not shown how c must NOT be constant. Or if you have, I missed that part.

Despite claims, the GPS system has very little to do with the observational consistency of the speed of light. And again, is merely something that you have not confirmed for yourself. The GPS system is kept on track by constant communication and “re-syncing” with ground stations, doing otherwise would be pretty silly.

Well, I thought that part should be pretty clear by now.

The scenario is only contingent upon the observational consistency issue. And it leads to a contradiction.
So if you are going to support the notion of observational consistency, then please explain how there can be observational consistency and not a paradox in the provided situation.

“Is your devotion to Logic or to the persuasions of Men?”

If someone told you that “they” had scientific proof now that “2+2=3” and provided legitimate reputable sources and it was even announced on the news that the data has been confirmed, what is the first thought that would cross your mind?

…and wouldn’t you expect to be hearing about it for years to come on the Internet as people got on board with the exciting notion? Surely someone in the scientific community would tell you if it wasn’t true, so it must be. That is how you know that Jesus really did walk on the water. 500 eye witnesses can’t be wrong with direct observation.

… or can “they”.

SR says that if you are moving, 10 meters = 8 meters. And they have scientific data to prove it.

RM is all about devotion to Logic, not what “they say”, regardless of who they are. If you are not devoted to Logic, then the decision is easy, just put on your blinders and believe what they say, whatever they say. “They” are the cult of Man. You will go far. And then you will end and be forgotten. But that is inevitable anyway, right. At least that is what “they” say.

…but not all of “them”.

I’ve already addressed the stopped clock situation, see above where I recently talked about primary and secondary distance/causality. I’m willing to revisit the issue and restate my perspective on it, but at the moment my time is limited to the following issue.

There is a LOGICAL basis for concluding that c (in vacuum) is constant. This isn’t just about measurement, although measurement does offer inductive support to the proposition. But the important issue is that it makes logical sense for there to be a “threshold limit” to the speed of change. This also fits very well with RM.

What I can’t figure out is why you reject this threshold limit. The notion is logically implied by the following tenants of RM: 1) space is never “empty”, there must always be some affect. 2) affection occurs “instantly” but is always LIMITED by other affects. Instantaneous affection is impossible, as i believe you’ve said. There is a limit of speed of change.

This is logical. So why do you reject that c represents that limit? And why do you reject the logical implications of having such a limit? VO is in agreement with SR about how reality is only the “affection” or “valuing” going on. There is no objectivity or universality other than the minimal base unit of change; in RM that unit is affect, in VO that unit is self-valuing.

Explain your reasoning, the LOGIC behind your claim that c is inconstant. RM is based on definitional logic, and rightly so, this is its strength. So can you use definitional logic to demonstrate that c is inconstant? Or rather, to get more to the essential concern, can you use definitional logic to demonstrate that there is no limit to the speed of change? I really want to see your reasoning. Because it seems quite logical that there must be some limit to the maximum speed of change, which is just the same as the minimal threshold for existing.

And by the way, my allegiance is to logic, not to faith or to the scientific establishment.

phyllo pointed out that you believe this. However, it is not a rational belief.

All that re-syncing is done through techniques that assume general relativity to be true. That it continues to work is a continued test that GR is correct to a great deal of accuracy.

See the very detailed mathematics I provided: in every case there is observational consistency and a constant speed of light.

As with much of what James says about SR, this is a lie. SR says that distances in 4-dimensional space-time are invariant and decompositions of this invariant length into separate time and space components depends on certain choices.

MM, the issue isn’t (and has never been) the consistency of the speed of light in a vacuum.
The issue is and always has been the observational consistency of c, vacuum or not.

SR makes the claim that light will always be observed (measured) to be at c relative to the observer regardless of the speed of the observer’s frame of reference. The theory came about due to the effort to measure c while the Earth was headed in one direction around the Sun and again while headed in the opposite direction. They expected to measure c to be one value and later measure it to be different. They saw no significant difference in their measurement. So they concluded that perhaps regardless of the speed of the observer, he will always measure light to be the same speed, c.

But was that really their only alternative to the failed experiment?

Account for the experimental result. Give reasons for the failure.

This is not how the theory came about.

The theory came about because there is no role for a speed other than a constant in Maxwell’s equations. Additionally, Maxwell’s equations introduce an asymmetry into motion that plays no significant role in the electrodynamics but that should be detectable. This asymmetry is never detected in any kind of experiment. The most famous experiment to test for a detectable difference in the speed of light, the Michelson-Morely experiment, doesn’t pay any attention to the direction of the Earth around the Sun and can be done instantly at any time of the year.

Might as well throw in a wiki link: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michelson% … experiment

There might be other ways to accommodate the result of this experiment, but does any other way also accommodate all the other experiments and applications?

You might want to try reading those links before you present your “lies”, PB.

If I did an experiment that showed that 1+1=1, wouldn’t you say that the burden of proof rests on me?

SR proposes that the Michelson-Morley experiment’s failure proves that Lorentz’s aether didn’t exist (which is false logic), but also that X = X + Y and at the same time, X = X - Y for non-zero Y.

Really, because anyone who reads that will find that it is exactly in line with what I said: The Michelson-Morley experiment doesn’t matter at all about the direction of the orbit of the Earth. " Even over a period of minutes, it was presumed that some sort of effect would be noticed, since one of the arms would inevitably turn into the direction of the wind and the other away."

Actually, SR does not propose this.

SR merely assumes that no measurement will ever reveal an aether. It looks very much like no experiment will reveal an aether: those who wish to believe in something physical but that has no possible observable physical effect are welcome to do so.

Again you lie about SR. Can you demonstrate anywhere where this is the case?