On a separate tread, I’ve been discussing New Testament theology with Felix. Arcturus joined in with this statement:
“By appearances, it may seem that Jesus was created but at that time in history, all that happened was that he let go of His Godhood to become Man. Just as the Spirit of the 2nd person of the Holy Trinity issued forth from him.”
My response would have been long and on the subject. But I wanted to address something in particular about NT theology. Any would-be-theologian has to begin his research from a very uncomfortable proposition= Jesus death.
If the Spirit flowed from the divine nature of the second person of the Trinity, the Son, the why did the Son have to die? Why couldn’t the Spirit flow from the Son right then and there while Jesus was giving his Sermon on the Mount for example? Why did the Spirit only flowed afterwards? Seems to me that if the power was with Jesus before his tragic death that the Son was just a masochist who enjoyed unecessary pain. But I am going to assume that none believes that, so my question is what made it necessary for the Divine Son to suffer.
The alternative position, I think, is that Jesus was a heavenly being, but not of the same stuff as the Father. The Father however is well pleased and through him the Father created all and means to save all by it’s, Jesus’, sacrifice. It is through his suffering that Jesus gains the merit, the right, the authority to issue forth the Holy Spirit to those that believe in the Christ. Jesus earns what we cannot earn ourselves and gives it freely to us as a gift; but since the plan is the Father’s plan, the result of the plan, the gift, is said to be the Father’s. The work of Jesus is the Father’s work.
If Jesus was full God, or “very God”, then he could only choose to deny himself the natural and eternal power to issue the Spirit, to only reclaim what had been his from all-time. In-between, his suffering at the cross has no real causal necessity. But if it did, then we have to admit of a time when Jesus was not able to issue forth the Spirit, and if such a time existed, then the equality between Son and Spirit is not proven.
My guess is that Jesus “became” worthy of such a divine honor. Is it unheard of for what is created lowly to be raised to the status of a God? or to share power with God? It is as old as Genesis. The powers of God are abstracted from God and open for adquisition by that which is categorically lower than God. For God says:
“The man has now become like one of us, knowing good and evil. He must not be allowed to reach out his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat, and live forever.”
As an adjective, “like” can mean “same” and “equal”. But this is the trasformation of the PREVIOUSLY lowly into the NOW glorified as the Divine.
So, my point is simply this:
The necessity of Jesus Christ’s suffering means that something, that was not there before, became present after, and only after, through the satisfaction of a necessary condition by Jesus suffering. The Holy Spirit was not available, it seems, to us, and Jesus death made it available. Before that it was not. Why? is the question we must ask. If Jesus was perfectly God prior to his incarnation, then there would have been no real need for his suffering. The “need” would have been artificial, by a choice by Jesus, or the “Christ”, to withdraw from the Godhead splendor to die as a man to then receive the right that had been his and which he willingly abdicated.
An argument might be raised that Jesus had to die to seal the deal, and so the Godhead, of which Jesus is part of, provided from itself the requirements needed for itself. Something was not known by man, which needed to be known and sealed in blood, the most perfect blood. Jesus is the streched hand of God that pulls His pre-chosen ones to Himself. But this covenant is executed in time. As such the rights which God would convey to His Son were delegated in time, and the ability of the Son to issue the Spirit, while intended by the Father before-hand, is attained in time after and not there before the glorification of the Son.
Another interesting argument would follow here that “in-time” is one thing, but if God is omnisent, the the development of the plan “in-time” was only a perfunctory event that HAD to go in just this way and none other. Because it was pre-known by God, it was pre-existent. This is to apply a bit of greek philosophy into the discussion, but the text is not perfectly understood as such. For one, the text expressess relations within the God head in-time. A “father” precedes a “son” in-time. Before the son is begotten, the Father is not a father. We are what we do in-time. Then secondly, there is the measure of merit. The worthiness of the Son to receive special praise and favor lies in the ability of the Son to choose. Thus in the Garden we see the Son make a choice that may or may not have been known. Jesus own omniscense of all things is challeneged in the text. God, as the most perfect being, has complete freedom and is free of all necessity. Because he remains an unknown variable, everything that is is slightly uncertain unless he intervenes and by His power alone forces a certain outcome- but that is an event in-time and not fore-known.
It is thus possible, that the gift of the Spirit was obtained in time by the worthines of Jesus and this worthines dependent on the uncertainty of history and freewill, though each subject to the Might of God.
…Have I babbled long enough…